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Exam Code: HP0-S11
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your customer has an MSA30 set up in a single-bus configuration and wants to change it to a dual-bus
configuration.
How do you accomplish this?
A.It is not possible to configure the MSA30 in a dual-bus configuration.
B.You replace the single-port SCSI I/O module with a dual-port SCSI I/O module.
C.You set the Bus Configuration switch to dual-bus mode on the back of the MSA30 unit.
D.You reconfigure the properties of the MSA30 controller using Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
ANSWER: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer requires your assistance in designing the database server shown in the attached exhibit. The
database will have a large volume of writes to the log files and heavy read/write use of the data files.
Which RAID configuration would provide the best performance?
A.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 5
B.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
C.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 5
D.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
E.log files: RAID 6 (ADG)
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 Which parameters have an effect on the amount of time required to perform an online capacity
expansion? (Select two.)
A.logical drive size
B.amount of other I/O work the server is processing
C.amount of physical memory installed in the system
D.priority level of the rebuild operation set in the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
WArialZX
ANSWER: AB

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NO.4 A data center administrator wants to measure the BTU/hr generated by all the current ProLiant 380
G5 servers. The administrator wants to use this information to accommodate more servers without
making changes to the data center cooling system.
Which HP Essential product should the administrator use to accomplish this?
A.HP Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP Insight Control Environment for ProLiant ML/DL
E.HP Insight Control Environment for HP BladeSystem
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 By default with any addition pack installed, which file formats are available for reports generated from
HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select three.)
A..txt
B..pdf
C..xml
D..prn
E..csv
F..html
WArialZX
ANSWER: CEF

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NO.6 After initial HP Systems Insight Manager v5.x discovery and type identification, a comprehensive data
collection is attempted on all newly discovered devices. It will the store the details in the database on the
Centralized Management Server (CMS).
Which protocols are used in this comprehensive data collection? (Select three.)
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Distributed Management Interface (DMI)
C.Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D.Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.7 You have a few ProLiant servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 that have the Emergency
Management Services (EMS) enabled.
Using the Special Administration Console (SAC), which command limits the memory usage of a process?
A.k
B.r
C.m
D.lock
WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which systems are currently not monitored or licensed for performance monitoring using HP Systems
Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A.server sgh70413xa
B.server sgh70413xb
C.server sgh70413wy
D.server home-ews3047277
ANSWER: BD

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NO.9 Which HP Systems Insight Manager task enables the administrator to gather information from a newly
discovered network device?
A.polling
B.discovery
C.identification
D.data collection
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 Which advantage do AMD Opteron processors offer over Intel Pentium Xeon processors used in HP
ProLiant servers?
A.AMD Opteron processors use Burst Mode Memory technology.
B.AMD Opteron-based memory is connected to each processor via a South Bridge chip.
C.AMD Opteron-based system memory modules are controlled and managed by the processor they are
attached to.
D.AMD Opteron processors use the MemBus architecture that interconnects all installed processors and
memory modules.
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 Which software should be used to configure the write cache setting in the MSA1500cs?
A.Array Diagnostic Utility
B.Array Configuration Utility
C.Resource Partition Manager
D.Network Configuration Utility
WArialZX
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 Which ProLiant Essentials product uses Virus Throttle to prevent the spread of viruses and worms?
A.Intelligent Networking Pack
B.Insight Control Linux Edition
C.iLO Advanced Feature Pack
D.Performance Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 A customer wants to order 20 ProLiant DL380 G5 Servers to be shipped to a field location with no IT
support. The servers should be already racked, cabled, and have an operating system loaded when they
are delivered to the field location.
Which HP service is best suited for this situation?
A.HP Factory Express
B.HP Consulting Services
C.HP Care Pack Installation Service
D.HP Care Pack Next Business Day hardware support
ANSWER: A

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NO.14 Which HP servers use HyperTransport architecture? (Select two.)
A.BL480c
B.ML150
C.DL365
D.ML570
E.DL320
F.DL585
WArialZX
ANSWER: CF

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NO.15 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.HP Integrity NonStop
B.HP Serviceguard for Linux
C.Novell Netware Cluster Services
D.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 Which address syntax is valid for iSCSI addressing?
A.iqn.0202.hpstorage.hp.com
B.fqdn.2007.03.iSCSI.hp.com
C.iqn.2006.02.com.hp:hpstorage
D.ieee.iSCSI.ifqdn.2006.03.com.hp:hpstorage
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 Which processor currently uses 64-bit x86 based architecture and HyperTransport technology?
A.AMD Athlon
B.Intel Itanium2
C.AMD Opteron
D.Intel Pentium IV
ANSWER: C

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NO.18 Which HP server uses HyperTransport architecture?
A.BL20p
B.DL140
C.DL385
D.ML370
E.rx2620
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
From the screen shown, click the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
The ACU shows the Smart Array controller, but not the MSA1000 attached to the Linux server. The Linux
server can access and use the LUNs on the MSA1000.
What should you do to allow the ACU to configure the MSA1000?
A.Install the hpacucli package.
B.Install the cpqacuxe package.
C.Install the ProLiant Support Pack.
D.Install the ProLiant Integration Module
ANSWER:
C

NO.20 What is required to enable online spare memory on a ProLiant DL-series server?
A.All processor sockets must be populated and the spare VRM must be installed.
B.All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same size.
C.The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other banks.
D.ProLiant Essentials must be installed on the system where online spare memory will be enabled.
ANSWER: C

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NO.21 Which ProLiant Essentials product erases the entire system during its installation process?
A.HP Insight Control Environment
B.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
C.HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
D.HP Insight Control Data Center Edition
ANSWER: B

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NO.22 Which technology in Ethernet switches ensures loop-free connectivity?
A.Spanning Tree Protocol
B.Spanning Topology Recovery
C.Uplink Trunk Blocking Protocol
D.Layer 2 Loop Broadcast Recovery
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.23 Which types of migration can be performed by HP Virtualization Management Software? (Select
three.)
A.Virtual to Virtual migration
B.Virtual to Physical migration
C.Physical to Virtual migration
D.ProLiant to Integrity migration
E.Physical to ProLiant migration
WArialZX
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.24 Which type of task allows you to update software and firmware of several ProLiant Servers using HP
Systems Insight Manager?
A.Control
B.Polling
C.Distribution
D.Management
ANSWER: A

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NO.25 You need to install an MSA50 enclosure in an HP rack but the enclosure unit is not available at the
planned installation time. Therefore, you need to allocate the required space in the rack and plan the
installation once the enclosure is available.
What is the EIA unit height of the MSA50 enclosure?
A.1U
B.2U
C.3U
D.4U
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.26 Which component license involves a communications protocol that provides direct transmission of
data from the memory of one computer to the memory of another with minimal demands on the host CPU?
A.Accelerated iSCSI Pack
B.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C.InfiniBand Teaming Networking Pack
D.RDMA Pack for Multifunction Gigabit Server Adapter
WArialZX
ANSWER: D

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NO.27 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.Oracle RAC
B.HP Integrity NonStop
C.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
D.HP Serviceguard services on Linux Server
ANSWER: B

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NO.28 You are performing capacity planning for an active/active cluster.
Which factors are most important for you to consider? (Select two.)
A.bandwidth of the cluster interconnect
B.cluster node processor requirements
C.memory requirements of each cluster node
D.maximum number of concurrent user connections
E.bandwidth between the cluster nodes and the shared storage
WArialZX
ANSWER: BC

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NO.29 In a Fibre Channel fabric network, which network service is responsible for registering and
maintaining a valid logical network address database that is used for LUN masking and zoning?
A.Time Services
B.CHAP Services
C.Name Server Services
D.Secured Fabric Services
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.30 Which ProLiant Essentials product monitors and graphs the air temperature as it enters a server?
A.HP Onboard Administrator
B.HP Insight Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP iLO Power Management Pack
ANSWER: B

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Exam Code: HP0-A01
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 179 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?
A.whois
B.uname
C.nsquery
D.hostname
E.gethostbyname
Answer:C

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NO.2 What are the major features of IPFilter on HP -UX 11i v3? (Select three.)
A.creates extensive logs
B.supports X.25 Interfaces
C.installed and enabled by default
D.provides a new GUI configuration tool
E.supports Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer:A B E

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NO.3 Which commands are recommended to clear the c ontents an ac tive file c alled log-file? (S elect two.)
A.>log-file
B.trim log-file
C.freset log-file
D.cat /dev/null > log-file
Answer:A D

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NO.4 What are benefits of the HP-UX 11i v3 parallel probing of HBAs, targets, and LUNs? (Select two.)
A.improved boot time
B.improved availability
C.improved virtualization
D.improved I/O scan time
E.improved I/O performance
Answer:A D

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NO.5 How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?
A.HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B.Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C.Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D.Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX to 4.
Answer:D

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NO.6 How do you change a volume group name without reloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Answer:C

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NO.7 Where are system startup/shutdown scripts located?
A./etc/rc2.d
B./sbin/init.d
C./sbin/config.d
D./etc/rc.config.d
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?
A.arp
B.lanscan
C.ifconfig
D.traceroute
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which file c ontains the modified c onfiguration values that will be us ed the next time the cims erver s tarts ?
A.cimserver.conf
B.cimserver_start.conf
C.cimserver_planned.conf
D.cimserver_nextboot.conf
Answer:C

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NO.10 If ios c an s hows no device files for a claimed hardware path, which c ommand c an be us ed to recreate them?
A.lssf
B.reboot
C.insf -e
D./sbin/ioinitrc
Answer:C

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NO.11 What are the new features offered in NFS version 4? (Select three.)
A.integrated security
B.asynchronous write support
C.integrated file locking support
D.simplified firewall configuration
E.support for the UDP network transport
Answer:A C D

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NO.12 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.the physical links
C.a physical volume device file
D.the lvm disk resident structures
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)
A.netstat
B.ifconfig
C.linkloop
D.lanscan
E.lanadmin
Answer:C D E

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NO.14 The HP-UX System Management Homepage is started using which URL?
A.http://hostname
B.http://hostname:80
C.http://hostname:2301
D.http://hostname/hpsmh
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which file c ontains the information s ent in res pons e to a bootp reques t?
A./etc/services
B./etc/bootptab
C./etc/inetd.conf
D./etc/bootp.conf
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which files c ontrol the HP S ys tem Manag ement Homepag e (S MH) c onfiguration? (S elect two.)
A./opt/smh/smh.conf
B./opt/smh/conf/envvars
C ./opt/hpsmh/hpsmh.conf
D./opt/hpsmh/lbin/envvars
E./opt/smh/conf/timeout.conf
F./opt/hpsmh/conf/timeout.conf
Answer:D F

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NO.17 Which vPar feature is available on HP -UX 11i v3?
A.shared I/O
B.CPU granularity
C.dynamic migration of I/O
D.dynamic migration of memory
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which NF S s erver file c ontains a lis t of clients that currently have the s erver's NF S file s ys tems mounted?
A./etc/fstab
B./etc/rmtab
C./etc/nfstab
D./etc/mnttab
E./etc/exports
Answer:B

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NO.19 Which file s ys tems are included with the HP -UX Foundation Operating Environment (OE)? (Select two.)
A.ext3
B.HFS
C.VxVM
D.memfs
E.Base JFS
F.Online JFS
Answer:B E

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NO.20 Which feature of HP CIFS allows a Unix uid or gid to be mapped to a Windows account or group?
A.nmbd
B.smbd
C.winbind
D.smbclient
Answer:C

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NO.21 What does the linkloop command test?
A.router activity
B.Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C.MAC address connectivity between network cards
D.loopback address connectivity between network cards
Answer:C

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NO.22 C lick the T as k button. Us ing drag and drop, match each network c onfiguration file with its c ommon
definition.
Answer:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

NO.23 Click the Task button. Using drag and drop, match each backup/archive tool with its operation.
Answer:
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6

NO.24 What is the length of an IPv4 address?
A.32 bits
B.48 bits
C.64 bits
D.128 bits
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which areas can be locations of system bottlenecks? (Select three.)
A.disk
B.CPU
C.VPMON
D.memory
E.hard partition size
F.graphical interface
G.size of filesystems
Answer:A B D

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NO.26 C lick the E xhibit button. Why do you s ee an "x" for the us ers in the s ec ond field of the /etc/ pas s wd file?
A.password is expired
B.blank password is used.
C.user is currently deactivated.
D.shadow password is enabled.
Answer:D

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NO.27 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A.NUMA
B.ccNUMA
C.concurrent dumps
D.single CPU per socket
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which pair of statements is true when launching a tool using HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM Server
B.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
C.- authorizations are configured in Select Access - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
D.- authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions - users are authenticated using
PAM on the HP SIM Server
Answer:A

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NO.29 What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?
A.increasing throughput on the network interface
B.binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C.binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D.binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
Answer:C

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NO.30 How do you remove a virtual partition?
A.from the vPar monitor: MON>VPARREMOVE -p
B.from the MP: CM>VPARDELETE and select the name of the vPar from the list
C.execute vparstatus, then verify the vPar is down using vparremove -p
D.bring down all the vPar kernels made from the same nPar and reboot the kernel into the nPar
Answer:C

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Exam Code: HP0-207
Exam Name: HP (Procurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are about to configure HP Switch Meshing on four ProCurve switches at a customer site.
All of the ports that will be included in the mesh are configured for membership in customer
VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the VLAN configuration?
A.The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
B.The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until you manually configure its VLAN assignments.
C.The mesh ports will not be 802.1Q-compliant and will only be able to retain membership in a single
untagged VLAN.
D.The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
Correct:A

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NO.2 A customer is planning a Power over Ethernet deployment for a large call center that will use
VoIP telephones. While planning the wiring closets for the deployment, the customer suggests
using the uplink ports of a ProCurve Switch 2650-PWR to provide power to a ProCurve Switch
2600-8-PWR. Which statement describes a correct response to this suggestion?
A.It is only possible if the second switch is a ProCurve Switch 2626-PWR.
B.It is not possible because the 2600-8-PWR cannot act as a Powered Device.
C.It is only possible if the customer adds a ProCurve 600 EPS/RPS to the first switch.
D.It is not recommended because the second switch will not have adequate power redundancy.
Correct:B

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NO.3 You configured Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol on four ProCurve Switch 5348xl switches at a
customer site. During the configuration, you forgot to configure the switches so that
switch-to-switch links are not defined as edge ports. Which statement describes the consequence
of your oversight?
A.The switches in the spanning tree will elect multiple Root bridges.
B.The switches will reject the spanning tree configuration and block all ports until the configuration is
corrected.
C.The switches will be unable to elect a Root bridge and will not be able to forward traffic until the
configuration is corrected.
D.The switches will require more time to elect the Root bridge and resolve the topology, but the spanning
tree will otherwise function normally.
Correct:D

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NO.4 How is traffic prioritization accomplished with IEEE 802.1p?
A.802.1Q-compliant devices enforce priorities based on VLAN ID.
B.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 8 values in a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag.
C.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 64 values in a 6-bit field in the IP datagram header.
D.802.1Q-compliant devices dedicate a portion of available bandwidth to each prioritized conversation.
Correct:B

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NO.5 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must change context from the manager
level to the global configuration level. Which command do you use?
A.exit
B.write
C.global
D.enable
E.configure
Correct:E

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NO.6 At a customer site, you have configured four ProCurve switches for HP Switch Meshing and
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol. How will the mesh appear to non-mesh switches in the same
spanning tree domain?
A.as a single device
B.as a set of devices without redundant links
C.as devices that cannot participate in the spanning tree
D.as a set of devices with spanning tree enabled to block redundant links
Correct:A

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NO.7 What are the key principles of the Adaptive EDGE architecture? Select TWO.
A.Control to the Edge
B.Control to the Desktop
C.Command from the Center
D.Management from Anywhere
E.Security throughout the Network
Correct:A C

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NO.8 You are configuring a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to obtain time information from an SNTP server
located on a different IP network than the switch. Which configuration steps are necessary on the
switch to enable this functionality?
A.The switch cannot be configured to obtain time information from a server on a different IP network.
B.Define a default gateway for the switch, enable SNTP, use the sntp server command to enter the IP
address of the server.
C.Assign a port on the switch to a VLAN that includes the SNTP server, enable SNTP, configure the
switch for SNTP unicast mode.
D.Configure an IP address on the same IP network as the SNTP server, enable TimeP, configure the
switch for SNTP broadcast mode.
Correct:B

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NO.9 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? Select THREE.
A.mobility
B.security
C.reliability
D.availability
E.upgradeability
F.convergence
G.cost-effectiveness
Correct:A B F

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NO.10 While examining the spanning tree configuration on a ProCurve switch, you notice that one of
the ports is in the Blocking state. Which statement describes how this port will function in this
state?
A.The port is completely blocked for all purposes.
B.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward telnet traffic.
C.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward BPDUs through that port.
D.The switch forwards user traffic through that port, but does not receive user traffic through that port.
Correct:C

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NO.11 How do ProCurve switches, configured with link aggregation (also known as port trunking),
handle broadcast traffic?
A.Broadcast traffic is flooded through all of the ports in the trunk.
B.The switch sends a query and receives permission from potential receivers before flooding.
C.Broadcast traffic is handled in exactly the same way it would be without port trunking configured.
D.Broadcast traffic is flooded through non-trunked ports, but forwarded only through one of the ports in
the trunk.
Correct:D

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NO.12 You must remotely manage a customer's switch using Telnet. Which configuration/monitoring
interfaces are available? Select TWO.
A.web interface
B.menu interface
C.ProCurve Manager
D.boot monitor interface
E.command line interface
Correct:B E

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NO.13 You are about to update the software on a ProCurve switch. Which command do you use to view
a list of all software versions stored on the switch?
A.show run
B.show flash
C.show startup
D.show version
Correct:B

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NO.14 You are installing a ProCurve switch at a customer site and must enable remote management
for network administrators. Which configuration parameter is necessary to ensure that
administrators can manage the switch even if they are on different IP networks?
A.default VLAN
B.default gateway
C.default password
D.default management profile
Correct:B

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NO.15 You have been asked to configure IGMP on a ProCurve Switch 6200yl at a customer site. What
are the steps for enabling IGMP on the switch?
A.Enter the manager level, then issue the ip igmp command.
B.Enter the global configuration context, then issue the ip igmp command.
C.Enter the VLAN context for each VLAN that will support IGMP, then issue the ip igmp command.
D.Enter the interface configuration context for each port configured with a VLAN, then issue the ip igmp
command.
Correct:C

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NO.16 You must update the software on a customer's ProCurve Switch 5412zl. Which statement
correctly describes the process for this operation? Select TWO.
A.Use TFTP for direct serial transfer of the software.
B.Use FTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
C.Use TFTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
D.Transfer the software from your workstation using a direct serial transfer.
E.Instruct the switch to search for any available TFTP server without knowing its IP address.
Correct:C D

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NO.17 On switches that support the Switch Setup screen interface, which parameters can be
configured on the Switch Setup screen? Select TWO.
A.STP bridge priority
B.IP address of the TACACS+ server
C.system name and contact information
D.IP address and subnet mask for each VLAN
E.IP address and subnet mask for the default VLAN
Correct:C E

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NO.18 You are implementing a fully connected HP Switch Mesh at a customer site. Which statement
describes a valid design guideline for HP Switch Meshing?
A.A switch may be connected to no more than four mesh domains.
B.Up to five Switch 5400zl Series switches can be included in a full mesh.
C.All links in a full mesh must operate at the same speed and use the same media type.
D.When a switch is configured for HP Switch Meshing protocol, all of the ports on that switch must
participate in the mesh.
Correct:B

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NO.19 You are assigned to configure ProCurve switches at a customer site for in-band management.
Which are in-band management methods? Select TWO.
A.Telnet
B.SNMP
C.XMODEM
D.serial console
E.menu interface
Correct:A B

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NO.20 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must move from the global
configuration level to the port context configuration level for port a1. Which command do you use?
A.port a1
B.ethernet a1
C.interface a1
D.configure a1
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-500
Exam Name: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 .After a field engineer adds a second array controller to the server, the operating system does not boot .
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect jumper settings
B. incorrect slot order
C. array controller boot order D. interrupt conflicts
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which step must be performed when upgrading a customer's ProLiant server from a Pentium II Xeon
to Pentium III Xeon processor?
A. Flash ROM before replacing processors.
B. Ensure all processors have the same frequency and cache size.
C. Mix cache sizes in pairs for sockets 1 and 3.
D. Upgrade terminator boards for all four sockets.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .While running Diagnostics on your ProLiant server, you receive an error code: 6092. What should you
do?
A. Replace network card.
B. Replace disk controller.
C. Connect external loopback cable.
D. Place network card in a different slot.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .A defective processor is replaced in a Compaq server. The 212 "System Processor Failed" POST
error will not go away. What action can be performed?
A. Erase NVRAM to clear the Health Log.
B. Run Diagnostics on memory.
C. Replace hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Replace Memory Expansion Board.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component failure will cause a Compaq server to reset but not power up?
A. IMD
B. PPM
C. DIMM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.6 .What can Compaq Diagnostics reliably test?
A. Compaq Insight Manager (CIM) agents
B. system ROM BIOS compatibility
C. DAT tape drive read/write function
D. non-Compaq SCSI controller
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Which Compaq server component is covered under prefailure warranty?
A. DIMM memory
A. hard disk controller
B. recovery server option
C. network interface controller
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Which diagnostic mode tests individual components of a server?
A. Intermediate
B. Automatic
C. QuickCheck
D. Prompted
Answer: D

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NO.9 .Where should the server Feature Board be installed in Compaq servers?
A. A designated slot
B. Any PCI 64-bit slot
C. Any extended slot
D. An EISA slot
Answer: A

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NO.10 .What is the available array space after grouping six 4GB hard drives using Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 12GB
B. 16GB
C. 20GB
D. 24GB
Answer: B

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NO.11 .What is the first required action to safely remove an adapter from a Compaq PCI hot-pluggable slot?
A. Just remove the card.
B. Power down the slot to remove the card.
C. Power down the server to remove the card.
D. Install the new card in another slot.
Answer: B

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NO.12 .What capability do fans have in some hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. variable RPM, depending on thermal sensor readings
B. hot plug fan replacement
C. dual-power inputs for redundancy
D. redundant power supply fans
Answer: A

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NO.13 .On a ProLiant 450 MHz processor server, Level 2 cache is logging errors. Which item should be
replaced?
A. Cache Memory Stick
B. System I/O Board
C. CPU/Processor Module
D. Riser Card
Answer: C

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NO.14 .A hard drive fails on a system with an on-line spare. When is it recommended that the failed drive be
replaced?
A. upon discovery of the failure
B. upon completion of rebuild of on-line spare
C. not needed, failed drive will perform self-repair
D. any time before rebuild of online spare is complete
Answer: B

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NO.15 .What is used to disable a Compaq server serial port?
A. Compaq Insight Manager
B. System Board Switch
C. System Configuration Utility
D. Nothing, as it is disabled by default
Answer: C

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NO.16 .Which action is required to safely replace non hot-pluggable components in servers with redundant
hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. Depress server On/Off switch from front panel.
B. Ensure DC LED indicator on the hot-pluggable power supply is inactive.
C. Remove AC power cord from the primary hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Remove AC power cords from all hot-pluggable power supplies.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .What are the best sources for the latest versions of Rompaqs and Softpaqs? Select two.
A. Compaq ResourcePaq
B. SmartStart
C. HP/Compaq website
D. QuickFind2000
E. OS ServicePaq
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 .Which network interface controller configuration can support redundant NICs?
A. one dual-port fast Ethernet network controller
B. one 16/4 token ring network controller connected to a managed hub
C. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a second server
D. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a router
Answer: A

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NO.19 .Which resources could be used to help isolate correctable memory errors?
A. SSD and DAAD
B. ACU and SmartStart
C. Server Health Logs and Integrated Management Log
D. QRG (Quick Reference Guide) and Inspect
Answer: C

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NO.20 .What is the advantage of having an online spare as part of a SMART array configuration?
A. The drive can be used for temporary data storage until another drive fails.
B. The array will not lose its fault tolerance in case of a single drive failure.
C. You always have a spare drive available to physically put in place of a failed drive without having to
order a spare drive.
D. You can load balance across the array.
Answer: B

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NO.21 .What action is recommended if the Server Health Driver consistently reports a correctable memory
error in the same location?
A. Run ERASE utility to clear the location.
B. Schedule downtime and replace memory.
C. This is normal and can be ignored.
D. Mark "repaired" in Insight Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.22 .What do Compaq hot-pluggable power supplies have that traditional power supplies do not?
A. higher current
B. higher voltage
C. microcontroller Self-Test
D. power Monitor Port
Answer: C

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NO.23 .Which utility is assists in planning and configuring Compaq racks?
A. RackManager
B. RackAssistant
C. RackIntegrator
D. RackBuilder Pro
Answer: D

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NO.24 .Which product reports prefailure on all Compaq SMART hard drives?
A. CIM
B. RBSU C. ACU D. SCU
Answer: A

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NO.25 .How is a redundant Xeon server PPM identified?
A. one processor installed
B. two processors installed
C. fully populated PPM circuit board
D. half populated PPM circuit board
Answer: C

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NO.26 .Which Compaq utility is used to configure Online Spare memory?
A. Rapid Raid Utility
B. Raid Builder for AMP
C. ROM-based Setup Utility
D. SmartStart
Answer: C

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NO.27 .What is the likely cause of rack instability?
A. more than one component simultaneously extended
B. UPS installed at the bottom of the rack
C. side panels not installed
D. missing blanking panels
Answer: A

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NO.28 .What problem is indicated if the server powers up with no video and an audible POST error?
A. memory module not seated
B. monitor signal cable not connected
C. intermittent memory parity errors
D. monitor in power saver mode
Answer: A

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NO.29 .What enables remote server management and control regardless of the operating system or condition
of the server?
A. CIM (Compaq Insight Manager)
B. SCU (System Configuration Utility)
C. Remote Utilities (from system Diagnostics menu)
D. RILOE (Remote Insight Light Out Edition option)
Answer: D

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NO.30 .When servicing a customer's system, what is the proper sequence to remove power to the server and
any external storage subsystems?
A. external storage systems first, then server
B. server first, then the external storage systems
C. UPS, then the server
D. external storage first, then the UPS
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J23
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.2 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

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NO.4 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.5 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.6 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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NO.13 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

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NO.15 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

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NO.17 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.20 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M24
Exam Name: HP (HP Operations Manager Software v8 for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You want to monitor the free disk space on a managed node. You want to get a critical message
the first time the free space is below 20%. If the disk free space stays below 20%, you want to get
warning messages. What is the easiest way to achieve this?
A.Use Scripting and store if the rule matched the first time or not in a SESSION variable.
B.Use the start action to create the critical message and the continue action to create the warning
message.
C.There is no special configuration necessary. If a threshold is violated multiple times, then warning
messages will be created automatically after
D.
E.Specify two threshold rules (using 20% both times). In the first rule, select 'first time only' and create the
critical message. In the second rule,
F.
Correct:B

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NO.2 You have 30 rules in one policy. How can you set the same message key in the outgoing
messages for all the rules that have already been created? (Select two.)
A.Change the message key field in each of the 30 rules separately.
B.Select all 30 rules. Choose 'Modify' and 'outgoing message' and overwrite the message key field.
C.Choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the message key field. This overwrites the current
message key of each rule.
D.If the message key was NOT already set, choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the
message key field. This will be applied for all
E.
Correct:A D

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NO.3 You manually installed the agent software on a Windows node. When you look at the package
inventory on the server, this shows an empty list. What do you have to doto be able to see the
actual complete package inventory?
A.Execute 'Redeploy all'.
B.Execute 'opcsw -installed'.
C.Execute 'Synchronize packages' from the node pop-up menu.
D.Deploy a policy. This implicitly synchronizes the complete package inventory.
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of deployment jobs that are active for the same node?
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.12
Correct:A

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NO.5 What happens if you have placed version 1.0 of a policy in Policy Management->Polices
Groups->MyWebServers and then create version 1.1 of the same policy below Policy
Management->Polices Grouped by Type?
A.Version 1.0 and version 1.1 of the policy are now in the policy group.
B.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is automatically updated to version 1.1.
C.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is NOT automatically updated to version 1.1.
D.Version 1.1 of the policy CANNOT be created because version 1.0 is already in a policy group.
Correct:C

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NO.6 What can you use to configure outages? (Select two.)
A.an outage server policy type
B.the node menu in the console for unplanned outagesthe node? menu in the console for unplanned
outages
C.the service's menu in the console for scheduled outages
D.the command line tool ovowserviceutil for unplanned outages
E.the ovpolicy tool to disable the policies for the nodes in outage
Correct:B D

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding policy groups? (Select two.)
A.A policy group can contain other policy groups.
B.A policy group can contain policies of different policy types.
C.A policy group always contains the latest version of a policy.
D.A policy group can only contain policies of the same platform.
E.A policy group can contain different versions of the same policy.
Correct:A B

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NO.8 Which type of policy allows only one deployed policy per node?
A.Nodeinfo
B.SNMP Interceptor
C.Service Discovery
D.Open Message Interface
E.Flexible Management
Correct:E

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NO.9 As an OM for Windows administrator, you are developing a policy that will create specialized
messages for each entry in a log file. You are NOT sure if you already covered all possible entries
(events). How can you as an administrator collect 'unmatched events' so that you are able to
analyze these and enhance your policy withoutdisturbing the operator's daily work? (Select two.)
A.Use the 'Log local events that don't match any rule' feature.
B.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the active Message browser' feature.
C.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the management server log file' feature.
D.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the acknowledged Message browser' feature.
Correct:A D

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NO.10 Which communication technology is used by policy management to deploy policies to a DCE
agent on Windows?
A.WMI
B.RPC
C.SNMP
D.DCOM
Correct:B

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