2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 00M-649
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Systems & Software Engineering Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 In the Smarter Products and Systems Solution Whiteboard there is a V
process diagram.
Which part of the V-diagram represents testing?
A. The left side to show the hierarchy of tests down to the component test level.
B. The right side to represent the unit verification and system validation against the requirements and
design/implementation.
C. The bottom of the V
since both component and unit testing occurs after requirements and before
deployment.
D. Across the top of the entire V
since testing must be done early and throughout the systems
development process
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer says Our requirements are evolving too fast and they are out of control. Everyone is
constantly altering the requirements and it is impacting our project delivery dates and budget.
Which of the following Rational DOORS capabilities would best help your customer address this
requirements management problem?
A. Change management capability.
B. Requirements filtering capabilities.
C. Requirements link
D. Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does Rhapsody help reduce development time?
A. It automatically makes adjustments for changes in concept.
B. It manages the workload for the entire project.
C. It generates applications and documentation from the design model.
D. It imports design data from existing reports and documentation.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which key challenge facing organizations is addressed using Enterprise Architecture Management?
A. Understanding how to optimize the software development practices.
B. The need to achieve greater governance to meet regulatory compliance.
C. Speeding build processes in software development.
D. Getting an overall view of all assets deployed within the IT organization
Answer: A

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NO.5 What challenge is typical in companies developing complex systems and products.?
A. The inability of people to work together on a project, regardless of role.
B. The advent of multiple new programming languages and techniques.
C. Inconsistent directives from senior management.
D. A qualitative underreporting of client usage statistics.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-780
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex System Sales V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer is preparing to move their data and applications to a cloud environment. They are going to
use a provider's servers, storage and network resources, but will continue to manage the environment
themselves. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Storage as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following PureFlex attributes leverages the expertise and best practices from the industry
to intelligently tune and manage environments and leverages cloud while ensuring mission critical
reliability?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer needs an infrastructure for AIX and Windows application servers with supporting storage
and networking. The customer is not concerned about high availability. Which of the following is the
minimal solution that meets this need?
A. PureFlex Express
B. PureFlex Standard
C. PureFlex Enterprise
D. Flex BTO
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is looking to deploy applications quickly and more consistently for their user community.
Faster time-to-value of the applications takes out the manual steps and automating delivery. Which
attribute of the PureFlex address this requirement.?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: A

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NO.5 A PureFlex sales professional needs to select the best PureFlex Fibre Channel switch and mezzanine
card options for connecting a new PureFlex solution to an existing SAN and storage system. Which of the
following are the best two resources for this need?
A. Techline or Distributor
B. Competeline or Supportline
C. Briefing Center or Competeline
D. Distributor or Supportline
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-575
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.4 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.7 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.13 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.15 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

IBM questions   000-575   000-575

NO.17 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-639
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Big Data Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The analytic capabilities that come built-in with the Big Data platform include:
A. Geospatial
B. Mathematical
C. Predictive
D. Data Mining
E. Statistical
F. All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.2 Top Industry Big Data use cases include:
A. Telcom
B. Healthcare
C. Finance
D. Government
E. Retail
F. Utilities
G. All of the above
Answer: G

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NO.3 What is NOT an open source component of BigInsights?
A. HBase
B. Pig
C. Hippo
D. Zoo Keeper
E. Jaql
Answer: C

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NO.4 Use cases of analytics of data in motion refers to:
A. Smart Grid Management
B. Real-time promotions
C. Cyber Security
D. ICU Monitoring
E. IT log analysis
F. All of the above
G. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Infosphere Streams does not feature:
A. Un-clustered runtime for low latency streaming applications
B. Mining toolkit to score data models in real time
C. Analysis of both structured and unstructured data
D. High availability
Answer: A

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NO.6 Hadoop is designed to scale up from a single server to thousands of machines, but with:
A. A very low degree of fault tolerance
B. A very high degree of fault tolerance
C. No Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 With a Big Data platform an organization can
A. Discover and experiment
B. Analyze information in motion
C. Analyze extreme volumes of information
D. Manage and plan
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.8 Infosphere BigInsights enables a computing solution that is:
A. Scalable - New nodes can be added as needed, and added without needing to change data formats.
B. Cost effective - Hadoop brings massively parallel computing to commodity servers. The result is a
sizable decrease in the cost per terabyte of storage.
C. Flexible -Hadoop is schema-less, and can absorb any type of data, structured or not, and from any
number of sources.
D. Fault tolerant - When a node is lost, the system redirects work to another location of the data and
continues processing.
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.9 IBM Big Data platform allows an organization to bring together any data source, at any velocity, to
generate insight.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 With a Big Data platform an organization can
A. Discover and experiment
B. Analyze information in motion
C. Analyze extreme volumes of information
D. Manage and plan
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 000-N21
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

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NO.3 An organization has developed a set of best practices it plans to reuse in the future. How should the
organization use IBM Rational CLM to achieve this?
A. create a project template
B. write a best practices wiki
C. generate a process report
D. develop a project script
Answer: A

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NO.4 A project lead wants to ensure that the whole team understands the overall scope of the project.
Which capability of IBM Rational CLM should the sales specialist highlight?
A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.6 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest of the team is
doing and how it impacts the overall workload?
A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.9 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-502
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Sales Professional - v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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NO.3 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-559
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Developer - IBM Informix Genero v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 To modify the options that are visible when a user right-clicks on a program, which file must
be modified?
A. Form file
B. Program 4gl file
C. Action Default file
D. Presentation Style file
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using the Genero Application Server, what is the preferred method for implementing
load balancing (to increase capacity)?
A. The Genero Application Server is multi-threaded and handles load balancing automatically.
B. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on different servers, and use
thirdparty
tools to implement load balancing.
C. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on a multi-CPU host. Configure
load balancing among these various instances
within the http.conf file.
D. Place the Web Server and the Genero Application Server dispatchers on one host, and the
VMProxies (and the DVMs they instantiate) on
separate hosts. Modify the http.conf file to specify the location of the hosts where the VMProxies
reside.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is needed to provide the classes needed to create a Web Service ?
A. IMPORT os
B. IMPORT util
C. IMPORT xml
D. IMPORT com
Answer: D

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NO.4 What URL would you enter to call the "myApp" application defined in group "demo" through
the "myWebServer" Web Server?
A. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/myApp
B. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
C. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
D. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/sua/demo/myApp
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the default template_id value used by the GAS xcf file?
A. "_default"
B. "defaultgwc"
C. "gwdefault.css"
D. "gwcomponents.css"
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which product contains the Genero Report Viewer?
A. Genero Web Client
B. Genero Desktop Client
C. Genero Report Designer
D. Genero Dynamic Virtual Machine (DVM)
Answer: B

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NO.7 If the server has IP 192.168.1.50 and the client has IP 192.168.1.100, and GDC is listening on
port
6400 on the client machine, which is the correct value for the FGLSERVER variable?
A. 192.168.1.50:0
B. 192.168.1.100:0
C. 192.168.1.50:6400
D. 192.168.1.100:6400
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which method does NOT belong to the os.path class?
A. size()
B. rename()
C. separator()
D. getProgramDir()
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which attribute should be set if you need to align fields on the form that are inside different
GROUP containers?
A. STYLE on the field widgets
B. JUSTIFY on the field widgets
C. STYLE on the group containers
D. GRIDCHILDRENINPARENT on the group containers
Answer: D

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NO.10 A Web Service Application is started with three pool elements in its configuration: START=2
MIN_AVAILABLE=2 MAX_AVAILABLE=4 If each process takes 10 seconds to run, and 5
incoming process requests are received in the course of 6 minutes, at most how many DVM's will
be started?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N31
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Technical Sales Mastery v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Assuming it is not overridden manually, in which case will the isSuccessful property of the
procedure invocation result be true?
A.Worklight server is not accessible
B.Back end that adapter tries to connect to is not accessible
C.Internet is not available on a mobile device
D.Specified procedure does not exist in adapter
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can SQL statements can be invoked?
A.Only by using SQL statement query
B.Only by using SQL stored procedure
C.Only by having a separate file with SQL queries
D.Both by using SQL statement query and SQL stored procedures
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Worklight adapter is used to __________.
A.adapt the application to various environments (iOS, Android etc)
B.connect to various back-end systems
C.make sure that client application works directly with a corporate back-end system
D.make sure that client application is not running on a JailBroken/Rooted device
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

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NO.7 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

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NO.8 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 00M-660
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 23 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A developer creating mobile applications combining native and standard web technologies will
use:
A. IBM Worklight Studio (The product's IDE).
B. Their own Mac machine using Xcode
C. Hybrid applications using Objective-C
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application.
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team.
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers.
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal employees.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true?
A. Worklight Console is where services connectivity may be configured for the mobile application.
B. Worklight Console allows for the creation of a user experience based on open source libraries and
HTML5.
C. Worklight Console is not connected to Worklight Server or ID
D. Worklight Console allows for push notifications, version control and direct updates.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-463
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoS phere Guardium)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The policy has an extrusion rule with action of 'Log Extrusion Counter' when a credit card
number
is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:
Query 'select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);' returns a total of 120
records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for
SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which method stops a non-GIM installed Windows S-TAP?
A. Invoking the "stop winstap" command.
B. Stopping the GUARDIUM_STAP service.
C. Ending Guardium S-TAP process through Task Manager.
D. Removing S-TAP from startup programs and rebooting server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a disadvantage of using S-TAP terminate action in the policy (and related functionality)
over S-GATE terminate?
A. There is a need to install the S-TAP agent on the database server and as a result it's harder to
deploy.
B. Additionally licensed feature needs to be installed and as a result there is additional cost
associated with this functionality.
C. The decision to terminate is done by S-TAP and as a result it has significant negative impact on
database server performance.
D. The violation activity will start bringing results from the database before the connection is
terminated and as a result data leakage is possible.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)
Answer: B

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NO.10 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-959
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Sales V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer is looking for a small VTL that comes standard with deduplication as well as with
atleast4 TB of usable capacity which can grow to 20 TB.
Which IBM solution should be proposed to this customer?
A. TS7610
B. TS7680
C. T37650
D. TS7650G
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is one clear advantage of IBM’s TS3500 Tape Library over Oracle’s SL-8500 Library?
A. FC0E connectivity
B. Higher number of robots
C. Modularity of storage units
D. Capability for handling mixed media
Answer: C

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6. A customer has a number of non-IBM storage arrays, which are capable of provisioning using
only
traditional RAID volumes. Over-allocation of storage is an issue on some arrays and not on others.
In order to balance storage use across the arrays, the customer wishes to virtualize the
environment.
Which advantage would IBM SAN Volume Controller provide over EMC VPLEX?
A. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
B. SAN Volume Controller can provide Real-time Compression to reduce capacity if the array
supports compression.
C. SAN Volume Controller can provide block-level deduplication to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
D. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity if the array
supports thin provisioning.
Answer: A

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7. A customer tells the sales specialist that the cost for high performance storage is too
expensive,
especially for data that is infrequently accessed.
Which technology allows them to assign types of data to different types of storage media in order
to reduce costs?
A. Data archival
B. Storage tiering
C. Thin provisioning
D. Storage virtualization
Answer: B

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8. A company wants additional storage for their database system and has been looking at HP
competitive disk proposals as a solution. When discussing IBM’s solutions with the company’s
010, the sales specialist learns that the company is directly attaching the HP disk and is buying
fewer, larger capacity drives.
Based on this information, which financial justification is this customer using?
A. Price/performance
B. Return on investment
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Total cost of acquisition
Answer: D

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9. A sales specialist discusses system acquisition requirements with a company’s OFO, who
states,
“our final evaluation will be based on hard dollars, but l still want to see what kind of value I’m
getting with the solution we choose.”
How is this customer performing the purchasing analysis?
A. TOA
B. TCO
C. NPV
D. ROI
Answer: D

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10. The PRIMARY purpose of the SAN Volume Controller is to provide which function?
A. Increased performance
B. Storage virtualization
C. Merging multiple LANs and SANs into one
D. Replication within a single storage array (homogeneous)
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer with storage arrays from a number of vendors is looking at EMC and IBM storage
management tools. What should the sales specialist discuss with this customer?
A. EMC Unisphere manages IBM and EMC storage arrays
B. EMC can deploy a single solution to manage HDS and EMC
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can only manage the IBM storage arrays
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can manage SMI-S compliant storage from a single
management console
Answer: D

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NO.4 A sales specialist is discussing FO SAN with a customer, who says that it is not the right
solution
for the company’s needs. The customer has another solution in mind but has forgotten the exact
name of it, saying only that it has something to do with the LAN.
Which term is the customer most likely trying to articulate?
A. SAS
B. WAN
C. SATA
D. SCSI
Answer: D

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NO.5 A mainframe customer who utilizes 3490 tape is interested in reducing their need for tape and
would like to compare offerings from IBM and Oracle.
Which competitive product from Oracle should the specialist gather information on?
A. VSM
B. VSP
C. VPLEX
D. Bus-Tech
Answer: A

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