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Exam Code: M2010-245
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the name of the IBM Business Service Management solution that: Simplifies
service model
maintenance through discovery integration, Provides Real-time status through Consolidated
Operations
Management integration, and Calculates ° Key Pe rf o r m ance I nd i ca t o r ¡± b y l ev er a
gi n g a ut om at e
acquisition of business metrics?
A. Tivoli Business Service Management
B. Tivoli Business Service Strategy
C. IBM Business Framework
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is one of the processes which demands the most of human resources inside a
complex IT
Environment?
A. Monitoring.
B. Track of changes and configuration.
C. View of the current environment.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Name the solution that is offered as a component of TEM (Tivoli Endpoint Manager) for
Lifecycle
Management, Security & Compliance and also offered as a standalone product.?
A. Patch Management
B. Version Management
C. Compliance Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2150-563
Exam Name: IBM (Assess: IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another
AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each
available
entry.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an
AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.10 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry
Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.12 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search
criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation
codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming
data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

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NO.16 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be
synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

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NO.18 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control
AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from
another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: C2040-926
Exam Name: IBM (Managing and Maintaining IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Environments)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A DDM application probe performs which of the following?
A. Checks web settings
B. Probes agent schedules
C. Checks server replication
D. Probes database operations
Answer: B

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NO.2 Users have been selecting the option for 'More Secure' logout when leaving Domino
Web Access.
What function does this option provide?
A. This option forces the logout to occur via SSL over HTTP on the mail server
B. This option scrambles the user's Internet password in the person document for the next
login
C. This option deletes all traces of Domino Web Access and all other Web pages in the
temporary Internet
files folder
D. This option deletes all traces of the user's personal use of Domino Web Access and any
Web pages
that they may have browsed, but keeps Domino Web Access program elements
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following are required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A. Cleanup Script
B. Fault Recovery
C. maximum Fault Limits
D. Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer: B

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NO.4 Charlie is preparing an upgrade of the Notes clients and is testing the Smart Upgrade
Tracking feature.
When he tries to manually initiate a Smart Upgrade he receives the error "File Does Not
Exist". What
could be the cause of this error?
A. A Desktop Policy is not configured
B. The id file is missing from the person document
C. The Smart Upgrade Tracking database is not named "Smart Upgrade Tracking"
D. The Smart Upgrade Tracking database name is incorrect in the Desktop Policy
Answer: D

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NO.5 Lotus Notes Traveler server maintains a database with information pertaining to the
cluster replicas of
the mail files which are being synchronized with a Lotus Notes Traveler client. The file name
of this
database is which of the following?
A. travcldir.nsf
B. mduserdir.nsf
C. ntsclcache.nsf
D. lntravcache.ndk
Answer: C

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NO.6 You must create a DDM collection hierarchy to initiate which of the following?
A. Data roll-up
B. Probe initiation
C. Probe interface
D. Data interface
Answer: A

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NO.7 Event handlers contain numerous notification methods. Which of the following is NOT
a supported
notification method?
A. Pager
B. Broadcast
C. Outbound phone call
D. Log to Windows NT Event Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.8 Antonio was in the process of registering users for his Domino domain. He had to stop
in the middle of
creating new users with numerous users left to register. What database on his local machine
is the list of
pending users for registration?
A. userreg.nsf
B. usercache.nsf
C. certlog.nsf
D. register.nsf
Answer: A

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NO.9 Domino roaming for the Notes standard configuration clients in Domino 8.5 and higher
offers the ability
to synchronize which of the following?
A. A notebook database and user ID file
B. The user ID file and local Eclipse XML configuration files
C. A feeds subscription database and an Eclipse plug-in data and preferences database
D. The Activities plug-in configuration and the integrated Sametime Connect configurations
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which DDM probe reviews Web server configuration values on specified servers
against a set of
predefined values?
A. Web - Configuration
B. Web - Best Practices
C. Server - Configuration
D. Server - Best Practices
Answer: B

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NO.11 After DAOS is enabled and functioning on your Domino server, which of the following
occurs when a
recipient opens a document with an attachment that is in the DAOS repository?
A. Attachment icons display with a link icon over the attachment icon
B. Attachment icons display a doclink to the attachment stored in DAOS
C. Attachment icons display the same as it would on a server without DAOS enabled
D. Attachment icons do not show and they are replaced with text that describes the
attachment and is
linked to the attachment
Answer: C

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NO.12 Smart Upgrade Governor is enabled on the server. When a user manually tries to
initiate Smart
Upgrade locally they get a dialog box indicating they are unable to upgrade at this time and to
try again
later. What server command can the administrator run on the server to display Smart
Upgrade statistics?
A. SU display
B. sucache show
C. show sugovernor
D. display su state
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have made the following entry in the server's notes.ini file Allow_Access_lan7=*
($Groups) Which
of the following will this entry provide?
A. Every group in the Domino Directory will be allowed access over lan7
B. Everyone in the Domino Directory that cannot be found in a group can access the server
over lan7
C. Every group in the Domino Directory will be denied access to all other ports on the
Domino server
D. No one in the Domino Directory will be able to access lan7 unless you first access another
port and
authenticate as part of a group
Answer: A

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NO.14 Carl, the Domino administrator, wishes to migrate users to dynamic policies in his
Domino environment.
Which of the following will occur when he completes this task?
A. Groups with each policy name are create and users are assigned to the new group
policies
B. Users are added to policy documents and applied policies are removed from their person
document
C. Policies are added to the necessary person documents and document links are assigned
to the policy
documents
D. Policies are removed from the users entirely until they reauthenticate and the new
dynamic policies are
applied
Answer: B

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NO.15 Domino Domain Monitoring (DDM) allows for a central server to collect information
from other servers.
What are servers called that the central server collects from?
A. Probe servers
B. Node servers
C. Event Servers
D. Collection servers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2090-095
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere QualityStage Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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A. transforming the data from one data type to another.
B. discovering the actual values of missing data.
C. verifying the reliability of the data in the fields to be used as matching criteria.
D. identifying all the data sources for data consolidation.
Answer: C

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equals to "MR"?
A. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))<= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
B. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
C. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
b.TITLE="MR"
D. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is DataStage/Quality Stage Administrator client used for?
A. Setting up project properties.
B. Scheduling jobs to execute.
C. Compiling all the jobs at once.
D. Exporting log messages for a job.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Critical Fields.?
A. Critical Fields are used to identify fields that must agree in order for records to be linked.
B. Critical Fields do not have to match exactly.
C. Only critical fields of a record are used to calculate the composite weights of the record.
D. Critical Fields are fields with missing values.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Standardization Rule Sets, classification table contains what?
A. Field name, data type, and position in record.
B. Class, token, and standard form.
C. Pattern of tokens, actions to execute, and the logic.
D. Token, standard form, class, and override rules.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2180-188
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Program Management )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 38 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 It is discovered while running Playback 0 that an important but not strictly necessary
sub-process was
missed in the analysis. How should the program manager recommend handling the missed
sub-process?
A. Redo Playback 0 and include the sub process.
B. Note the sub-process as a user story and save it for the next release.
C. Include the sub-process in Playback 1 without validating with the process owner.
D. Schedule a special iteration and playback to address the sub-process after Playback 3.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The BPM Program Manager, Process Owner, and Lead Developer are collaborating to
define the theme
and assign user stories for the next iteration. The team is planning the 7th of 15 iterations in
the Release
Plan for Release One. The Program Manager displays a Team Velocity chart showing that
the
Development team has shown significant growth in story points accepted from iterations 1 to
4 and has
been leveling off to roughly 200 story points in iterations 5 and 6.
Given there are 9 iterations remaining in the release plan, the Process Owner immediately
recognizes
there is room for roughly 1800 story points in the remaining time for Release One. However,
the backlog
contains 2400 story points marked as "high" priority and another 1200 story points marked as
"medium"
priority. The Process Owner asks to reduce the points assessed to the high priority user
stories to bring
the total points down to roughly 1800 so as to make them fit in the remaining time. The
Program Manager
agrees.
What is wrong with this scenario.?
A. This is a conversation for a Release Planning meeting and not during Iteration Planning.
B. Team Velocity is fixed and changing the method of estimating story points mid-way
through a release
will not increase the scope of work that can be completed.
C. Process Owner forgot to include a risk factor of 1.4 that should be applied to 1800
resulting in roughly
2500 story points (1.4 x 1800 = 2520) remaining in the Release. No action should be taken.
D. Both "high" and "medium" priority stories should be included in the Release Plan meaning
all user story
points should be reduced by 50% to get all high/medium priority stories to fit in 1800 points
remaining
(2400+1200 = 3600 : 3600/2 = 1800).
Answer: B

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NO.3 The BPM program manager and process owner for a new hire onboarding process
project need to
ensure that the solution developed by the team will be accepted and adopted by the target
users. To
facilitate this, they decide to:
A. plan additional playbacks for user screens.
B. agree with users to postpone the release until every feature is correct.
C. involve champion SMEs in the discovery and implementation including playbacks.
D. insist on documentation of all user requirements before having the development team
begin work.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2180-228
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Cast Iron Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 If you need to demonstrate Cast Iron's capabilities to a prospect, you can _.
A. setup a demo system by purchasing the IBM Value Package which includesthe Hypervisor
version of
Cast Iron (e.g. virtual appliance)
B. make a request to your local IBM sales rep for WebSphere Cast Ironassistance
C. use IBM's pre-recorded demos on its Website
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The premium SVI incentive fees are paid for Eligible End Users that IBM designates as
general
business (GB). How can SVI-approved Business Partners find out if an End User is
designated as GB?
A. Signing onto the Passport Advantage Online tools and following the onscreen instructions
to access
the Price Quote Order (PQO) tool.
B. Contact your Value Add Distributor (VAD)
C. Search on IBM.com
D. A & B
Answer: A

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NO.3 To register an opportunity for Software Value Incentive program, the partner should do
what?
A. Call the IBM sales person s/he knows is already in the account beforeanything else.
B. Have your Company's PartnerWorld programadministrator enterstheopportunity into the
Global Partner
Portal.
C. Contact your Value Add Distributor.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must a Business Partner do to be approved and receive a Software Value Plus
Identify and/or Sell
fee payment?
A. Demonstrate active selling engagement with the customer for the IBMproducts by
providing supporting
documentation that shows their activitiesthat contributed to thecustomer sdecision.
B. Indicate when the opportunity is won and provide supporting documentationto show their
influence of
thecustomer sbuying decision when they submittheir SVI payment request.
C. No action needed.
D. A & B
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2050-238
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling/Order Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 37 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 IBM Sterling OM provides a single order repository that enables a user to modify,
update or track all
orders real-time for what type of channel?
A. Field Sales
B. Retail Store
C. Call Center
D. Any combination of channels.
Answer: D

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NO.2 IBM Sterling CPQ has customers in many different verticals. Which combination of
verticals reflects
most accurately, the CPQ customers.?
A. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment, LifeScience, and
Education.
B. Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, High Tech, Pharma, Consumer.
C. LifeScience, Manufacturing, Construction, Communication/Media/Entertainment/
Consumer.
D. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, Consumer.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The ability to have multiple quotes assigned to a single opportunity enables sales
people to
________________.
A. find the optimal price point of a quote
B. handle approvals of quotes
C. make quote negotiations more effective since alternative quotes can be presented to a
prospect
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM Sterling Configurator can be integrated with other applications. What specific
characteristic makes
it easy to accomplish such integrations?
A. Configurator engine design is based on open standards such as XML and JAV
B. Configurator engine has great performance and scalability characteristics.
C. Configurator engine is a stateless engine.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do today s customers interact with a brand?
A. Customers expect the brand to provide a seamless and consistent cross-channel
experience.
B. Customers expect a dedicated and independent system for each channel for more
focused service.
C. Customers are increasing using only a single channel for all their interactions.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2090-226
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smart Analytics Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is NOT one of the main ingredients of IBM Smart Analytics System?
A. Masterdata management software
B. Analyticssoftware
C. RDBMS or database software
D. Hardware
Answer: A

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NO.2 An IT manager is interested in IBM Smart Analytics System, but they are also looking
at similar
solutions from Teradata.
What is the best way for the sales representative to respond?
A. We have a similar proven architecture; however, we can often execute and implement a
solution at a
more competitive cost.
B. We have architectural differences that allow us to scale and perform better. We are more
focused on
BI versus on applications.
C. An appliance is an interesting approach. We can provide the same benefits and we
execute better,
stand behind it, and provide a clear upgrade path.
D. They are just an RDBMS. There is more to analytics than accelerating one or two queries.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which operating system runs on the 9600?
A. z/OS
B. Windows Server
C. Linux
D. AIX
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which capability of IBM Smart Analytics System will be of the most interest to an IT
customer in financial
services.?
A. Increasedperformance on analytics software
B. improved customer service and retention
C. increased share of wallet
D. increased campaign effectiveness
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which offering from Oracle competes most directly with IBM Smart Analytics System?
A. 11g Enterprise Edition
B. Optimized Warehouses
C. Exadata
D. Real Application Clusters
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2090-610
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: DB2 10.1 Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What type of mechanism is a simple token value that is used to refer to a much bigger
large object
(LOB)?
A. locator
B. pointer
C. address
D. reference
Answer: A

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NO.2 When an index is created for a table, where is the metadata for that index stored?
A. In the table definition.
B. In the system catalog.
C. In the schema that the index resides in.
D. In the metadata of the table the index was created for.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When is it appropriate to use a sequence?
A. When you want to control the order in which triggers are fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific
column or
table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a
specific
table.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?
A. To combine data from multiple sources.
B. To discover hidden relationships in data.
C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.
D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.5 If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page
size (in kilobytes) of
the database?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: A

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NO.6 What type of large object (LOB) is used to store LOB data together with the formatted
rows on data
pages, instead of in a separate LOB storage object?
A. inline
B. binary
C. internal
D. partitioned
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two valid objects that can be created in DB2? (Choose two.)
A. Tree
B. Node
C. Trigger
D. Contexts
E. Sequence
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 You have a business need to query DB2 10 and DB2 9 databases and you want to
write an application
that can run on most platforms unchanged. Which interface would you use to achieve your
goal?
A. CLI
B. XML
C. JDBC
D. RUBY
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which DB2 object can be used to improve the execution performance of qualified
SELECT statements?
A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA
wishes to
increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?
A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which clause should be included in a ALTER TABLE statement to update a table
definition with a new
column?
A. ADD COLUMN
B. ALTER COLUMN
C. APPEND COLUMN
D. RENAME COLUMN
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm product inventory.
B. Monitor product availability.
C. Summarize sales by region.
D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.
E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?
A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.
B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.
C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.
D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an
application-period temporal
table?
A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.
B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.
C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.
D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period
of the table.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which object is a stored procedure defined into?
A. Table
B. Schema
C. Package
D. Database
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which DB2 object is used to provide a logical grouping of other database objects?
A. Alias
B. Index
C. Schema
D. Collection
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which product is used to customize execution environments for the purpose of
controlling system
resources so that one department or service class does not overwhelm the system?
A. pureScale
B. Workload manager
C. Data partitioning feature
D. Self-tuning memory manager
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which type of temporal table can be used to store only time-sensitive data?
A. Bitemporal
B. Time-period
C. System-period
D. Application-period
Answer: D

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NO.19 What functionality allows users to perform a UNION operation between a DB2 table
and an Oracle
view?
A. Oracle connect
B. Trusted context
C. Oracle federation
D. Distributed request
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which tool allows users to connect to a DB2 database using a wizard?
A. Control Center
B. IBM Data Studio
C. Universal Connection Expert
D. DB2 Connection Pool Manager
Answer: B

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NO.1 Risk

NO.2 TCOnow! for Disk provides what value?
A. Provides the CIO with an ROI comparison
B. Compares speeds and feeds of disk storage systems
C. Analysis of a 'head to head' comparison of disk storage solutions
D. Compares features of Storage Systems advanced functions and software
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two of the following are examples of a company's legal need to comply with data
retention?
1.Cost

NO.4 A client has a file server with 100 TB of usable storage. The growth rate of the data is 50% per
year. The majority of the data rapidly becomes inactive data and is not frequently accessed. The
customer would like to implement a solution that would automatically migrate the inactive data to
a less expensive disk. Which solution would meet the customer's requirements?
A. DS8800
B. DS3524 Express
C. XIV system Gen3
D. Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer needs approximately 800 TB of network attached storage for unstructured media
files in a single file system. Which of the following choices would be the best solution for this
customer?
A. N3240
B. DCS3700
C. IBM SONAS
D. Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: C

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NO.6 Growth

NO.7 Availability
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 4
Answer: C

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2. Customer has two datacenters 1000 km apart, and wishes to perform disaster recovery across
a small set of disks (less than 10 TB). What is likely to be the most costly part of this solution over a
three year period?
A. Switch and replication hardware charges
B. Disk storage hardware and warranty costs
C. Storage administration and support costs
D. Line charges from telecommunications vendors
Answer: D

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3. Using the IBM One Voice Whiteboard Presentation as a reference, the initial discovery of a
customer's IT platforms, their use cases and overall goals, incorporating IBM best practices,
virtualization and data protection to gain greater storage efficiency, this customer is being driven
toward________.
A. More on the floor.
B. Workload optimization.
C. Data in the right place.
D. Correct staffing levels.
Answer: B

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4. A customer with POWER7 servers running mission critical DB2 applications in a stock market
transaction application have data centers at 2000 km distance. They need near zero recovery time.
Which of the following is the appropriate solution for this customer?
A. DS3500 with Metro Mirror
B. N series with Flash Cache
C. DS8800 with Global Mirror
D. Storwize V7000 with TPC for Replication
Answer: C

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NO.8 The sales team is discussing the Storwize V7000 with the customer. The customer has asked
about the software features of the Storwize V7000.
Which of the Storwize V7000 software features are available at an additional cost?
A. Easy Tier, FlashCopy
B. FlashCopy, External Virtualization
C. Metro/Global Mirror, Thin Provisioning
D. External Virtualization, Metro/Global Mirror
Answer: D

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NO.1 Based on the following output from a PowerHA 7 cluster node, what else can be done to
provide higher availability?
A. Enable fast failure detection.
B. Mirror rootvg across local disk.
C. Mirror caavg_private across shared disk.
D. Change non mirrored volume group disks to hot spare using the chpv command
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will allow an administrator to mirror shared volume groups between two sites that are
only linked by TCP/IP?
A. GLVM Disk
B. MetroMirror Disk
C. PowerHA 7 Network Share Disk
D. Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) Share Disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the two types of application monitors that can be created?
A. Process Monitors and Custom Monitors
B. Predefined Monitors and Custom Monitors
C. System Monitors and User Defined Monitors
D. Process Monitors and User Defined Monitors
Answer: A

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NO.4 The administrator has written a script "correct_problem.sh" that needs to be run if the
"release_vg_fs" event does not complete successfully.
What should be done to ensure the correct_problem.sh is called a maximum of 3 times if the event
failed?
A. Include a post event of correct_problem.sh and a retry counter of 3
B. Include a custom event of correct_problem.sh and a restart limit of 3
C. Include a retry command of correct_problem.sh and an event counter of 3
D. Include a recovery command of correct_problem.sh and a recovery counter of 3
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has completed installing PowerHA 7 filesets. Which task, or tasks, should be
completed next?
A. Configure cluster topology
B. Configure cluster resources
C. Reboot each PowerHA cluster node
D. Verify and synchronize the cluster
Answer: D

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NO.6 A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and
has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager
continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator is configuring a4-node cluster to host 3 instances of their production
application in an N+1 fallover design. Each instance will be in a separate resource group, and all 4
nodes will be participating nodes in each resource group.
Under normal circumstances each node only hosts one instance of the application. Whichever are
the first three nodes to join the cluster become production, and the fourth node will be the standby.
How must the resource group startup policy be configured to accomplish this?
A. Online On Home Node Only
B. Online On All Available Nodes
C. Online On First Available Node
D. Online Using Node Distribution Policy
Answer: D

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NO.8 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the
HMC for a standby node in that cluster:
How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum
hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: C

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