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Exam Code: QAWI201V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two options should you take before you finish creating a variable in Web Intelligence? (Choose
two.)
A.Save
B.Parse
C.Export
D.Validate
Answer:A D

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NO.2 Which three elements are parts of a query filter? (Choose three.)
A.Class
B.Object
C.Operator
D.Operand
Answer:B C D

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NO.3 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A.Dimension - Detail
B.Measure - Measure
C.Dimension - Measure
D.Dimension - Dimension
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A.Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B.Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C.Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D.Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A.Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B.In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C.Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D.Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
Answer:D

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NO.6 What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks,
without the ALT key selected?
A.A new block is created.
B.A new section is created.
C.An error message is displayed.
D.The currently selected cell is displayed.
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use
to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A.Sum
B.Detail
C.Measure
D.Dimension
Answer:C

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NO.8 You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two
methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A.Rebuild the filters.
B.Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C.From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D.Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer:A D

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NO.9 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI
3.0 document (WID)?
A.Advanced
B.Query
C.Active X
D.Interactive
Answer:D

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NO.10 Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A.In the cell
B.In the document
C.In the Metadata Cube
D.In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which three types of local data files can you use to create a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0
document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A.TXT
B.XML
C.CSV
D.XLS
Answer:A C D

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NO.12 Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose
three.)
A.Top margin
B.Left margin
C.Page orientation
D.Background color
E.Visited hyperlink colors
Answer:A B C

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NO.13 Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A.Order Breaks
B.Vertical Breaks
C.Crosstab Breaks
D.Horizontal Breaks
Answer:B D

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NO.14 Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A.Drag the queries together
B.Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C.Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D.Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which two operators are available when using wildcards in a query filter? (Choose two.)
A.LIKE
B.Matches Pattern
C.Not equals Pattern
D.Different from Pattern
Answer:B D

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A.Used when any condition is met by two filters
B.Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C.Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D.Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer:B C

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NO.17 Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a
BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A.The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B.The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C.The query drill mode option is enabled.
D.The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Answer:B

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NO.18 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of
your document data?
A.Document Palette
B.Document Formats
C.Display Preferences
D.Data Tracking Options
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A.Min
B.Max
C.Count
D.Count All
Answer:A B C

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NO.20 Which two panels can you use to purge data from a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document
(WID)? (Choose two.)
A.Query
B.Report
C.Active X
D.Slice and Dice
Answer:A B

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Exam Code: SABE301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - BusinessObjects Enterprise XI - Level Two)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.8 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running
on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.12 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of sub-alerts that an alerter can contain?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the default behavior when creating a report from two queries from the same
universe?
A. Result produces two table blocks.
B. Dimension objects are automatically merged.
C. Results are shown on two different report tabs.
D. Dimension objects are not automatically merged.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which three can you use to start the Web Intelligence Rich Client from? (Choose three.)
A. InfoView
B. Command Line
C. Start > All Programs
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which three layout options can you use when creating sections in a report? (Choose three.)
A. Relative Position
B. Start on New Page
C. Keep Blocks Together
D. Avoid Page Break in Section
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where should you configure the regional settings of a Web Intelligence document (WID)
within InfoView?
A. Local Settings
B. Browser Preferences
C. User Machine Settings
D. InfoView Preferences
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two are limitations of a detail object? (Choose two.)
A. It cannot be drilled on.
B. It cannot be used in the report filter.
C. It cannot be merged in a document.
D. It cannot be used in the WHERE statement of the query.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A. Used when any condition is met by two filters
B. Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C. Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D. Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence
document(WID)?
A. Dimension - Detail
B. Measure - Measure
C. Dimension - Measure
D. Dimension - Dimension
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 050-V71-CASECURID02
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 7.1 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

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NO.2 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

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NO.4 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

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NO.9 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.10 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

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NO.11 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.13 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

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NO.14 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

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NO.15 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

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NO.17 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

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NO.18 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
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Total Q&A: 633 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.2 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.5 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.7 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.9 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.12 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.13 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.15 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.16 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.17 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.21 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.23 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.24 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.26 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.27 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.28 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.29 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.30 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.1 The "Cost of quality" project management concept includes ____?
A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements
B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to.
C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded.
D. The costs involved with quality control requirements.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network
diagram and the Gantt chart?
A. Few resources
B. Key milestones
C. Critical dates
D. Critical dependencies
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the MAIN reason for including incentive clauses in a
contract?
A. Reducing costs to the buyer.
B. Controlling contractor costs.
C. Aligning contractor and buyer goals.
D. Reducing production costs.
E. Reducing contractor risk.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of
the project?
A. Planning a turnover meeting.
B. Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C. Team celebration.
D. Project evaluation.
E. Performance evaluation of team members.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following represents the final task during project close-out?
A. Reassignment of team member.
B. Verification that contractual obligations were met.
C. Transferring the deliverables to the client.
D. Completion of performance/lessons-learned records.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost?
A. Insurance costs.
B. Payroll tax cost.
C. Subcontract costs.
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project
management approach? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
E. Production-line environment.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.8 Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A. The expected requirements for critical path activities.
B. The expected resource usage by time period.
C. The resource assignments by work package.
D. The resource assignments by activities.
E. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Survival.
B. Self-actualization.
C. Safety.
D. Esteem.
E. Physiological satisfaction.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.11 When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is
the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard
deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What would be the cost performance index if BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325? Note:
Budgeted Cost of
Work Performed (BCWP), Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and Budget Cost of Work Schedule
(BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT an essential regarding a project close-out?
A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B. Documenting the final risk assessment.
C. Documenting the lessons learned.
D. Documenting the final project scope
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource
planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current
phase of the project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all
project activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports
are?
A. It is used to predict future status and progress.
B. The project sponsor makes the most use of it.
C. It is an important communications element.
D. It is needed on a weekly basis.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST
effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule?
Origin of Problem Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the job title of the person who is primarily responsible for the quality of
deliverables?
A. The quality control inspector.
B. The quality controller.
C. The design engineer.
D. The project manager.
E. The quality manager.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources when working
within an arrow diagramming method?
A. Histograms.
B. Accounting support costs.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Milestone events.
E. Path activities.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does a benefit-cost ratio of 3.22 indicate?
A. A profit of s3.22 per unit produced.
B. A payback of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
C. The percentage of resources assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
D. The gold plating result.
E. A profit of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that
indicates zero schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least
one milestone that has not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an
overall delay in the project.
Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?
A. Critical path status
B. Risk analysis
C. Communication plan variance
D. Resource management plan
E. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?
A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
B. When an activity is expected to start.
C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
D. When an activity is expected to finish.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has
the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Certain resources have been added to tasks on the critical path so as to reduce the
project duration. As a result the plan should then be reviewed for the:
A. Possible lag time on other paths.
B. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
C. The most time consuming task remaining in the plan.
D. Emergence of a new critical path.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following represents a consequence to the project in the event of a
resource being added to the project team during execution?
A. Shorter project completion schedule.
B. An indeterminable effect.
C. A requirement for a scope change.
D. An increase in project quality.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Under which of the following circumstances would project management is the NOT
be the preferred management approach?
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following is NOT included in activity duration estimated?
A. Project team knowledge.
B. Commercial duration databases.
C. Time studies.
D. Information from previous experience.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract
close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of
work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: PMI-100
Exam Name: PMI (CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Exam)
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Total Q&A: 650 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following will be required to perform simu-lation for schedule risk analysis?
A. Activity list and activity attributes
B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
C. Schedule data and activity resource requirements
D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.2 A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor's concepts concerning
Theory X and Theory Y managers?
A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to delegate
responsibility
C. Both 1) Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change,
and 2) Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
D. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
E. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change
Answer: A

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NO.4 Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following:
A. performing contingent planning
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities)
D. identification of project risks.
E. developing planning alternatives
Answer: D

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NO.5 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved
project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?
A. Alter to task priorities.
B. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
C. Fast tracking or Crashing
D. Fast tracking.
E. Crashing
Answer: D

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NO.7 Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
Answer: D

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NO.9 Communication always makes use of.
A. words
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. language
D. gestures
E. symbols
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?
A. maintenance and calibration
B. warranty repairs
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. scrap
E. rework
Answer: A

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