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Exam Code: E20-080
Exam Name: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 210 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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NO.11 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.17 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.21 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.23 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.24 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.25 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-610
Exam Name: EMC (CLARiiON)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.4 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

NO.6 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.7 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

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NO.13 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.14 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.15 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.17 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.19 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

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NO.20 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-017
Exam Name: EMC (Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $60,000 for the implementation charges. Once
the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $60,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 35%; Month 6
B. 35%; Month 7
C. 76%; Month 6
D. 76%; Month 7
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has estimated a cost of $220,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $30,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $1,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can platform integrity be found?
A. Store
B. Automate
C. Create copies
D. Distribute
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company's IT department is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain legacy
equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing equipment with a new one.
Option 1:
-Total operation costs = $400,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,250,000 -Recurring annual operation costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $100,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which option would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
D. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.5 In the context of "establishing information availability," what is an operation management activity?
A. Capacity planning
B. Data classification
C. Testing
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company has a system with three critical components as represented in the exhibit.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. Following an outage, certain
components seem to take longer to restore back to service than others.
What is the mean time to repair (MTTR) for Component 3?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: C

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NO.7 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. SLAs have been established
between the business and IT that define normal hours of operations for service as 8 A.M. - 8 P.M.,
Monday through Friday.
What is the availability (percentage) of Component 1?
A. 78
B. 81.7
C. 89
D. 91.7
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can seamless movement of data
between tiers of storage be found?
A. Automate
B. Create Copies
C. Distribute
D. Store
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company has a shared pre-staged infrastructure at an alternate site. This approach enables the
company to rebuild systems and applications in the event of a disaster.
What is the term for this strategy?
A. Hot site
B. Manual failover site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: A

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NO.10 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components. Each component
must be functioning for the system to be operational.
What is the scheduled availability (percentage) for the system?
A. 84
B. 86
C. 88
D. 90
Answer: C

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NO.11 The exhibit represents the expected financial results of a storage technology investment.
What does the ® ¯: represent?
A. Cost of investment equals the gain from the investment
B. Asset exceeds liability
C. Deployment cost crosses the planned deployment time
D. Return on investment
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has estimated a cost of $240,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $35,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $2,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.13 The exhibit represents a Component Failure Impact Analysis (CFIA) for a company's IT infrastructure.
Several Requests for Change (RFC) were raised.
Which RFC should be considered a priority for implementation?
A. Deploying a switch architecture with no single point of failure
B. Clustering the backup server with multiple storage devices
C. Configuring the NAS device in an active-active mode
D. Adding more disk drives to the storage array
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $50,000 for the implementation charges.
Once the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $70,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 85%; Month 8
B. 85%; Month 9
C. 110%; Month 6
D. 110%; Month 8
Answer: C

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NO.15 Based on strategic plans regarding green initiatives, an IT department is considering server
consolidation in its data centers.
Which set of elements should be included in the business value analysis to maximize the ROI for such an
initiative?
A. Asset utilization, recovery of stranded assets, and cost of floor space and power
B. Productivity of staff, response to business conditions, and utilization of storage
C. Asset utilization, backup costs, and need for availability
D. Cost of floor space and power, FTE-managed TB of storage, and reduction in SLA penalties
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.3 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.5 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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NO.7 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.9 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.11 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.14 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-547
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
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NO.1 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Answer: D

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NO.3 What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

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NO.4 When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to
an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2
host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. format
D. vtoc
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
C. It relocates more active data from tier 1storage without users noticing the difference.
D. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.8 A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value.
What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Unisphere storage role will limit a user to the administration of the file system checkpoints, LUN
mirrors, and replication manager tasks?
A. Data recovery
B. Administration
C. Data protection
D. NAS administrator
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.14 What happens when a new CFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check
boxes remain unchecked?
A. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CFS server
B. A global share Is created and served by the primary VDM
C. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover
D. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.16 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
Answer: B

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NO.18 After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?
A. fdisk
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Service Manager
D. Disk Management
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private
LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.1 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.2 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX and Windows hosts as well as Mainframe z/OS LPARs to a
new VMAX array. Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout. Which
host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. STP, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. SAR, Perfmon, WRKDSKSTS
C. IOSTAT, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
D. IOSTAT, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: C

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NO.4 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a best practice when configuring a Symmetrix VMAX for optimal performance and cost?
A. Different drive types are mixed and spread throughout the array.
B. Dedicated engines have appropriate drive types to meet application needs.
C. A dedicated array with Enterprise Flash Drives (EFD).
D. A dedicated array based upon application requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.11 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.13 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.14 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.16 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a
Windows host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and IBM iSeries hosts to a new VMAX array.
Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout.
What host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. IOSTAT, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. STP, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
C. IOSTAT, STP, WRKDSKSTS
D. Perfmon, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports the maximum allowable downtime for their applications is ninety minutes,
but they have not yet determined how much data recovery following a disaster their environment can
tolerate.
The customer asks which remote replication method you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend.?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a static partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Cache will be borrowed from a flexible partition
B. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
C. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: C

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NO.20 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-616
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-02

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NO.1 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.2 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.5 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.11 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.13 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.16 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.17 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.18 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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